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Re: server-side vs.client-side [message #183615 is a reply to message #183609] Sat, 02 November 2013 19:41 Go to previous messageGo to previous message
Richard Damon is currently offline  Richard Damon
Messages: 58
Registered: August 2011
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On 11/2/13, 12:46 PM, Thomas 'PointedEars' Lahn wrote:
> Michael Vilain wrote:
>> I've never seen javascript run on anything but a browser.
>
> Which does not mean anything. Not only is that an /argumentum ad
> ignorantiam/, a classic fallacy; but also, contrary to common misconception,
> there is not even a (single) programming language called “javascript”.
>
Several Fallacies here:

First, this is not "argumentum ad ignorantiam" because that fallacy is
the fallacy of assuming something is true because it has not been proven
false. You might be able to claim a fallicy of lack of evidence does not
imply evidence of the lack, but the problem with citing that is the
claim isn't that NO use of "javascipt" is not client-side, but that the
"norm" for "javascript" is client-side, which means that any possible
server-side use, if it exist, needs to be uncommon, which IS supported
(but maybe not proved) by a lack of observation. Refutation of this
observation could be done by showing a existing usage *of common enough
usage* to negate the "normally" tag.


There is a language called "javascript", even your beloved ECMAScipt.org
site admits this, stating in at least one location:

"ECMAScript" is the name under which the language more commonly known as
"JavaScript" is standardized.

Which admits to the existence of language with the name of "javascript",
it just isn't the name of the language that the standard applies to.

Your instance that "There is no javascript" is a denial of reality.

The rest of your rant is similarly filled with the flaw that something
must be wrong because it doesn't match YOUR particular unusual
definition (or lack there of) even if it matches the commonly use meaning.
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